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Mail Order Bride Law...

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Equality under the law....
So why doesn't the law require the same in reverse?...What protects a MAN from predatory female wannabe brides?..ex cons. alcoholics, abusers and even foreign SPIES use the Mail Order Bride Business: and they come in BOTH sexes.

http://www.foxnews.com/story/0,2933,180487,00.html
SuperTroll
8:08:36 AM
1/11/06

First, there is an over ambunance of perfectly marriageable women in the United States. The U.S. does not have to import any.

Second, what protects a man from a "preditory woman"? A well written prenuptual.

Third, the law address the current asymmetrical amount of information that works to the detriment of foreign women.
prosecutor
11:12:22 AM
1/11/06

Super Troll: The law applies to men just as much as it does women. You missed the fine print in this peace of Faux New BS:

"(Note: The act's language is gender-neutral but its clear purpose is to protect foreign women from predatory American men. Application to "male-order husbands" would be incidental as such 'brides' are relatively rare.)"
pedxing
11:17:58 AM
1/11/06

This is actually a great example of a writer going ahead with a rant after finding out their premise was wrong.
pedxing
11:21:03 AM
1/11/06

What I meant is:
Where does the law require that prospective BRIDES provide the same history to prospective husbands? Nowhere do I see the requirement for Marriage brokers to require the prospective Russian Women brides to provide previous marriage Histories and Criminal backgrounds to inquiring Men...

DEMAND MUTUAL DISCLOSURE!

I have seen first hand the marriages of Foreign women to American servicemen (Korea) where the sole purpose of the bride was to obtain residency in the US and divorce the Servicemember, taking everything not nailed down as they go...

There are as many women preying on lonely men as there are predatory men abusing women.
last edited: 1/11/06 12:05:16 PM
SuperTroll
11:57:56 AM
1/11/06


Super Troll: The language is gender neutral, as the author admits. The author is the one who makes the assumption that the law is only designed to protect brides. It applies equally to "brides" and "grooms" - anything offered towards prospective brides is also offered for prospective grooms.

There is no imbalance in the law. You are confusing what the author tries to imply with the actual facts as admitted in the article.
pedxing
12:37:19 PM
1/11/06

It is only the title that refers to women, the text of the law protects men equally. Check this article out:

http://www.boston.com/news/globe/editorial_opinion/oped/articles/2006/01/09/family_violence_strikes_men_too/
pedxing
12:43:49 PM
1/11/06

So this won't protect Geobeet from Slivala or whatever her name is?
Nigal
12:52:01 PM
1/11/06

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